I’d like to summarise here a point I make at greater length in my piece “Left-Libertarianism, Class Conflict, and Historical Theories of Distributive Justice.”

In Anarchy, State, and Utopia, Robert Nozick famously criticises approaches to distributive justice that look at how resources are currently distributed without taking the past into account, and defends a more “historical” approach that assesses the justice of present-day distributions by looking to the causal process by which they arose.

A frequent objection to this historical approach is that it serves to legitimate existing massive inequalities of wealth. But is this true?

To be sure, the historical approach would legitimate these inequalities, if they had emerged by a series of just transfers from just original appropriations (or else from a series of transfers and appropriations whose injustices had all been properly rectified). But then it is equally true that, e.g., utilitarian and Rawlsian approaches would legitimate such inequalities, if the inequalities promoted social advantage (aggregate or mutual, respectively). So why is this hypothetical urged more strongly against the historical approach than against the utilitarian and Rawlsian approaches – especially since few people believe that the antecedent is satisfied in any of the three cases?

I suspect it is because of the widespread assumption that the historical approach, if strictly adhered to, would be likely to eventuate in a distribution of holdings broadly comparable to existing inequalities (even if the specific holdings would in many cases belong to different people from those they currently belong to). Even Nozick himself seems to think of his arguments as legitimating an economic landscape broadly comparable to our own; for while he insists that applying his historical principles of justice would probably require a radical redistribution of existing holdings – a point seldom stressed by either his defenders or his critics – he does not appear to envision its entailing any radical change in the overall structure of wealth distribution. (For example, he takes for granted that the implementation of his entitlement theory will involve the dominance of traditional “capitalist” firms – as opposed to, say, workers’ cooperatives.)

But what is distinctive about historical theories of a broadly Nozickian sort is not so much that they focus on the past as that they focus on means of acquisition, including not just past but ongoing acquisition. Given the extensive involvement of state violence in the process by which the corporate elite not only achieved its wealth in the past but continues to maintain and augment it in the present, it is clear that the massive inequalities of wealth that characterise present-day “capitalist” society are radically inconsistent with any approach to justice in holdings that is even remotely Nozickian.

Of course such inequalities can presumably be challenged on utilitarian and Rawlsian grounds too. But the advantage, as I see it, of the historical challenge to existing inequalities is that it lays bare the class structure of society, and the roots of such inequalities in state violence. Merely pointing to the fact that some people have a lot more than others is less compelling as a critique; it invites the response “So what? Those who have more aren’t hurting anybody; you’re just appealing to envy.” By contrast, being able to show that those who enjoy a higher socioeconomic status have to a considerable extent achieved and maintained that status by forcibly expropriating and oppressing the less affluent provides for a far more effective indictment.

My point is that the historical critique correctly identifies what is surely a morally relevant fact, and one that end-oriented critiques tend to ignore: namely, that in many, many cases those who have more are getting it at the expense of those who have less. Now of course utilitarian and Rawlsian approaches may also make the claim that, in some sense, those who have more have it at the expense of those who have less; but in order to substantiate that claim without appealing to historical (i.e. causal) considerations, they have to defend a baseline of equality. My present argument is not that such a defense is impossible, but only that the need to defend it places an additional and somewhat recondite burden on end-oriented challenges to inequalities – whereas the historical challenge, by identifying past and ongoing acts of violent expropriation rather than merely pointing to the existence of differential shares, provides a much more straightforward, intuitive, and unambiguous basis for condemning the present structure of wealth distribution in “capitalist” society.

For the fuller version of the argument I’ve just summarised, see here. For David Friedman’s criticisms of my argument, and my first stab at a reply, see here.

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  • Hyena

    Thinking about the history of transfers always makes me wonder about a few things:

    (1) What happens if you find there are no legitimate holders to property because all the first owners–presumably the first nomad to find some space–are all long displaced and forgotten?

    (2) What if our ancestors held property in ways we don’t understand? Usually we assume communalism or personal property, but what if these concepts arise much later?

    (3) How do we bind new people to the old property regime? We can’t really argue that they have pre-existing duty to abide by the property regime without some other machinery to do the work.

    (4) Do persistent social lies count as coercion?

    (5) Can the property regime be reset? For example, if everyone had bought into feudalism on 5 MAY 1124, does that represent the new year zero for property?

    (6) Do future people have valid claims on property? Can these be divined?

  • Hyena

    (7) What is a just way to divide the pre-sapient void?

  • http://profile.typepad.com/6p00e5500515a98833 BerserkRL

    (1) Presumably if you can’t identify a valid claimant there’s a presumption in favour of the current possessor. The more pressing question is whether there should be a statute of limitations or whether it should go back as far as we have evidence. Nozick himself didn’t take a clear stand on that (since he was arguing for a general approach, not a specific instance of it), though Rothbard argues for the “as far as we have evidence” approach.

    (2) As always, nothing more than the best we can is required of us.

    (3) Can you explain (3) a little more?

    (4) I’d be inclined to say no, but can you give an example?

    (5) I suppose unanimous consent could reset it, since all the legitimate claimants, whoever they are, would be surrendering any claims inconsistent with the new regime. Unanimous consent could solve all sorts of problems, if it ever happened ….

    (6) I’d be inclined to say they have moral claims but no enforceable claims.

    (7) Who’s doing the dividing?

  • http://profile.typepad.com/andrewlevine Andrewlevine

    Merely pointing to the fact that some people have a lot more than others is less compelling as a critique; it invites the response “So what? Those who have more aren’t hurting anybody; you’re just appealing to envy.”

    Inequality and mistrust reinforce one another. Mistrust is one of the biggest contributors to social ills, and one of the most common reasons behind the rejection of logical appeals. (A fuller explanation, including some sociological research in this matter, is given in Chapter 4 of The Spirit Level.)

  • David Sobel

    I entirely agree that there is no reason to assume that anything like the particular current inequalities we see around us today would be justified by a Nozickian scheme. Indeed, surely given the massive amounts of force and fraud that generated current holdings, I think there is good reason to doubt that current holdings would be vindicated on a Nozickian account. But I wonder if you think that there is any good reason to think that Nozickian principles have a robust tendency to, if accurately applied, generate not too inegalitarian outcomes. If not, then at least some will feel that although the Nozickian complaint about current holdings is in good order and well worth making, it remains insufficient to ensure a morally decent outcome.

  • http://profile.typepad.com/theotherchuckd TheOtherChuckD

    Nozickian thinking in the American context seems to lead inevitably to culture war. First, we have to reconcile Native American concepts of property and our dealings with them, which could throw all property into question. Then, we have to figure out whether land grants to railroads and Homestead Act sales were fair and open, etc, etc.

    What a mess.

  • http://profile.typepad.com/andrewlevine Andrewlevine

    Chuck makes a good point. Even more entangled: in Africa, there are active, ongoing tribal land disputes that date back to before any written property law was in force. With the added wrinkle of the European landowners who introduced modern property rights sandwiched in time between the old and new tribal claims. Overall, a cross-cultural minefield. Did Nozick have an idea what to do to resolve those?

  • Hyena

    Sorry for the lateness of my reply.

    (RE 1) In that case, I would argue that it would flip us back to the issue raised with (7): property with no valid claimants becomes, in essence, pre-divided property.

    (RE 3) When I’m born, there is a pre-existing property regime with owners and rules of transfer. In a libertarian context, there’s an argument that I can submit to these regimes only willingly which drives ideas about legal pluralism many libertarians hold. But at no point can I credibly refuse these regimes; even moving to a jurisdiction with a different one is an abdication of my claims in other regimes.

    (RE 4) A persistent social lie is an untruth which occurs frequently in society, is known by many people to be false but is nonetheless continuously used by people who either know it false or would, had they not taken pains to flush their doubts because it is profitable to appear sincere.

    (RE 7) As a general matter there should be some principle under which an initial distribution of property is just. If original distributions do not, in fact, satisfy this principle, then all later divisions of property are to one degree or other unjust.

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